Are all men created equal?





I have to write an essay for my AP US History class, on whether or not I think Thomas Jefferson showed that he believed this statement through his words and actions. Now I'm not quite sure what to think seeing as he was very contradicting of his words. My sources can only be from Notes on the State of Virginia and a History Channel movie called A View from the mountain. Any points anyone can give on the topic would be greatly appreciated! Thanks. P.S. I am to mainly focus on his views slavery, women, and native americans.



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4 Responses to “Are all men created equal?”

  1. pyrograph says:

    The declaration that Jefferson wrote is quite similar to the one of virginia’s declaration of rights. Jefferson was also a slave owner.

  2. yhtraws says:

    He did not believe this statement. He considered blacks naturally inferior to whites, however, I do believe that he thought that all white men were created equal, which is pretty advanced for back then.

  3. JANELLA says:

    I agree with “red” above.In Jefferson’s mind he meant “all white men are created equal.” And this does mean that women were not equal. I don’t think he is using the term “men” to encompass both sexes like the word “mankind” refers to both. You will notice that the founding fathers including Jefferson had no thought of allowing women or free African Americans to vote – even though both fought in the American Revolution.The USA began in 1787 with the Constitution. Women were allowed to vote 133 years later – just 88 years ago. 1920 was the first year that women could vote for president in the United States.I don’t have the movie or the documents you are supposed to use to make you case. It should be easy to find examples in Jefferson’s book “Notes on the State of Virginia” that indicate he (Jefferson) did not think women, blacks, or Indians (Native Americans) should vote – indicating that he did not believe them to be equal. This should be in chapter 13 and 14 covering the Virginia Constitution and laws.”RKA” below is right in my opinion. I think Jefferson – if pressed – would have said that educated men with property were the only ones capable of voting intelligently.

  4. leptotene says:

    When Jefferson used the term “men” he meant white men who at that time were the only persons allowed to have an opinion. In fact, go a little deeper and you will find that Jefferson didn’t have a lot of faith in even white men’s vote. Some say he and the other framers of the Constitution thought American voters (which were white men who owned property) weren’t smart enough to cast a popular vote and instituted electoral colleges to control the will of the people. There..that is a lot to think about. Good luck on your research.